Discuss whether you believe Hamlet is putting on an antic disposition or if he has truly gone mad.

All of the evidence would seem to suggest that Hamlet is indeed pretending to be mad. But, as Polonius shrewdly acknowledges, there is method to his "madness." Hamlet conveys the impression of insanity the better to hide his true intentions regarding Claudius. If people think he's mad, then they'll be more likely to underestimate him. Hamlet's constant vacillation in killing Claudius merely adds to the sense that this is not a particularly formidable character.
At the same time, we must remember that Hamlet is a complex soul. Although he may not be mad, there seems little doubt that he's psychologically damaged to some extent. After all, his uncle murdered his beloved father and is now married to his mother. Hamlet's whole world has been turned upside-down by Claudius's wicked actions. There's often a fine line between the trauma that Hamlet has suffered and the madness which he so successfully feigns. Indeed, one could say that it's only because Hamlet has been so psychologically damaged by what Claudius has done that he's able to make his "antic disposition" look so incredibly convincing.

Comments

Popular posts from this blog

How does Bilbo show leadership and courage in The Hobbit?

In “Goodbye to All That,” Joan Didion writes that the “lesson” of her story is that “it is distinctly possible to remain too long at the fair.” What does she mean? How does the final section of the essay portray how she came to this understanding, her feelings about it, and the consequences of it?

Why does the poet say "all the men and women merely players"?